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Bible Study Course Lesson 2 – 9
The entire Christian world believes beyond the shadow of a doubt the New Testament is full of doctrines about which the Old Testament says nothing; that the salvation by faith we have access to today was something Jesus created specifically for the New Testament Christian church. But if that is true, why did Paul tell young Timothy to study “the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus” (2 Timothy 3:14-16)?
Paul seemed to think the Old Testament scriptures alone – the only ones which had been written when Timothy was a child – were able to make someone wise unto salvation. But more than that – salvation THROUGH FAITH IN JESUS CHRIST! But how could the Old Testament teach you the principles of New Testament salvation?
Jesus seemed to think it was possible, for He told the Pharisees, “For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me” (John 5:46). If they had believed the doctrines of Moses – the doctrines in the Old Testament – then they would have believed the doctrines of Jesus because Moses wrote about Jesus!
And it must not have been that hard to understand, because the disciples knew that Moses wrote about Jesus: John 1:45. Other people realized it too; read John 6:14, a reference to the promise Moses made in Deuteronomy 18:15-19. So for some reason, although the Old Testament wrote about Jesus and His doctrines, some people understood it and some didn’t – or wouldn’t.
But surely in the works of Paul many new doctrines are found which Moses did not teach in the Old Testament… or so assumes most of Christianity. But ask Paul – is that true? WHERE did Paul get his doctrines? Acts 26:22-23.
Paul said he taught NO OTHER THING than what the Old Testament said! The New Testament does not in any way disagree with the Old; it clarifies, expands, and builds on the Old – but it never contradicts it. The only things the New Testament abolished were the things in the Old Testament that God never wanted in the first place!
So where did the Old Testament teach these things Paul taught? Why didn’t the people in the Old Testament “get” them, if Paul and other New Testament converts did?
COVENANT VS. TESTAMENT
Although people confuse them all the time, a testament and a covenant are not the same thing; a covenant is, simply speaking, a contract. A testament is a witness to that contract. There are many covenants in the Bible, but the two most famous are called by Paul the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.
Most people believe the OT only talks about the OC, with perhaps a few prophetic references to the NC; and the NT talks only about the NC, and only mentions the OC to disparage it. Almost everyone believes there is little or no real crossover between the two. But by now you have studied enough to see the Bible is ONE witness, ONE revelation, it is a complete package.
Everyone knows the OT taught about Jesus; prophesying the virgin birth, betrayal, death, resurrection and many other events in His life. But what almost no one knows is the OT also taught the SAME teachings He taught!
For example, in Matthew 5:5, people assume Jesus coined a new blessing; but He was just quoting Psalms 37:11. Likewise, people assume the OT teaches only “an eye for an eye” – but does it also teach loving your enemies? Exodus 23:4-5. Did David love his enemies? Psalms 7:4, Psalms 35:12- 15.
Everyone knows the Lord’s prayer; it is one of the most famous passages in the Bible, reproduced on tens of thousands of plaques! But how many people know Jesus based it on the words of king David? 1 Chronicles 29:11-13.
Is the idea of putting others before yourself strictly a NC concept? Compare Luke 14:10, Proverbs 25:6-7. Did it displease God, even in the OT, when you rejoiced at the calamity of your enemy? Proverbs 24:17. Did Job rejoice at the destruction of his enemies? Job 31:29,30 Did he even curse them? Verse 30.
The world has the idea the OT God was a law-obsessed monster with a brutal system of justice – though few dare say it, that’s what all their beliefs portray. So it shocks them to discover the very same God also commanded people to love their enemies! But it should come as no surprise to you, for you know by now the “God” of the OT, Yahweh Elohim, was Jesus Christ!
Most people assume Paul invented the idea of feeding your enemies in Romans 12:20-21. But whom was he quoting – word for word? Proverbs 25:21-22. Does the OT teach “finders keepers”? Deuteronomy 22:1-4. Does it teach that we should give to the poor? Deuteronomy 15:11.
On the other hand, there are also many concepts in the NT that sound just as harsh as the OT; for example… how should you treat a lazy person begging for food? 2 Thessalonians 3:10. The average Christian is shocked to hear Paul make such a callous statement!
Does Paul support the death penalty – an OT concept – in the NT? Romans 1:32. What does the NT say about obligations to your family? Luke 14:26. Did the apostles curse certain heretics, or did they only “entreat them with love”? Acts 13:8-12, Acts 5:1-11.
Did they teach that you should patiently reason with heretics? Romans 16:17-18. Was there a definite limit to the patience you should show someone unwilling to accept the truth? Titus 3:10-11. Did Jesus ever show anger? Mark 3:5. Does the NT encourage you to be angry? Ephesians 4:26.
There is a place for anger in the heart of a true Christian – but notice the same verse also says “let not the sun go down on your wrath” – in other words, deal with your anger before the sun sets. Subjects like this will be covered in due time, but for now it’s enough to realize the NT teaches many OT-like concepts – just as the OT has many obviously NT teachings. Why is that?
THE GOSPEL WAS PREACHED TO THEM
We were raised to believe the gospel is a new thing, something to which those poor people in the OT had no access; something God just invented for those of us lucky enough to be born after Jesus was.
But did God tell Israel the word of God was near to them? Deuteronomy 30:11-14. Did Paul say that verse was talking about the SAME WORD OF FAITH he preached? That Moses was talking about BRINGING CHRIST to them? Romans 10:6-8.
They didn’t need to ascend to heaven to get the word of faith – “to bring Christ to them” – because it (He) was already there with them! Keep reading in verses Romans 10:16, 21. They didn’t obey the gospel… which means they must have HEARD it!
Was Christ there with them? 1 Corinthians 10:4. Was the gospel preached to ancient Israel? Hebrews 4:2. Had Jesus been preached to the Jews in the distant past? Acts 3:20-26. Was the gospel preached to people who were (at the time Peter wrote) dead? 1 Peter 4:6.
Some make a big deal about that verse, thinking it means Jesus’ soul preached to spirits in hell; but you know that can’t be true (because Jesus’ soul was completely dead, and because the dead spirits “know not any thing” (Ecclesiastes 9:5)).
But as usual, this is embarrassingly easy to explain if you just listen to what it says; all Peter said was the gospel was preached (in the past) to people that are now dead (but who were alive at the time!). Which we can prove by merging with Hebrews 4:2, and Galatians 3:8!
This tells us as an absolute fact that both ancient Israel and Abraham heard the SAME NEW COVENANT GOSPEL we have heard. No church today realizes that, even though it’s right there in everyone’s Bible, easy to read and understand!
God preached the gospel to Abraham, Abraham believed God and His gospel, and that was “counted to him for righteousness”. When he later died in faith his reward as a part of the first resurrection was assured (Hebrews 11:39-40). The same resurrection we are offered today!
Did Abraham pay tithes? Hebrews 7:1-6. [Remember: Melchizedek was the Being who became Jesus.] Was Jesus alive before Abraham? John 8:58. Did Jesus see Abraham? John 8:57. Did Abraham see Him? John 8:56. Did Jesus tell Abraham the Truth? John 8:39-40.
Abraham “saw Jesus’ day, and was glad” – in other words, Abraham knew Jesus was returning “in the day of the Lord Jesus” (2 Corinthians 1:14), and he understood that he would be among those to receive the inheritance of Christ at that time – the first resurrection. Something other OT patriarchs, such as Enoch and Job, also knew (Jude 1:14, Job 19:25-27).
Much of the “Christian” world believes in “progressive revelation” – that is, that what God told Abraham was very different – or at least, vastly inferior – from what He later revealed to David, which in turn was far less than what He revealed to Paul. These scriptures prove they are wrong! The gospel of the kingdom, both physical AND spiritual, was taught from the very beginning! Paul clearly says that Abraham believed the same gospel which was preached to us; he had faith and received grace.
He understood the teachings of Jesus, we are told by Jesus Himself. So there is no escaping the conclusion that Abraham was a New Covenant Christian! In fact, Paul defines a New Covenant Christian as someone who does the things Abraham did! (Galatians 3:6-9). And what was the subject of Abraham’s covenant with God?Galatians 3:17. This verse is usually translated poorly as “confirmed before of God in Christ”; Barnes commentary says of the translation here… “…the phrase ‘in Christ,’ does not quite express the meaning of the Greek eis Christon. It means rather ‘unto Christ;’ … [that] the covenant had respect to him.”
In other words, this should read “the covenant that God had made [with Abraham] ABOUT CHRIST”. Paul was saying God had made a covenant with Abraham regarding Jesus Christ! Which is just what these other verses had been saying!
Do we, the NC Christians, receive the same promises Abraham had? Galatians 3:6-13,14 What was the blessing of Abraham? Verse 14. To whom is this blessing offered?Galatians 3:16. If you demonstrate faith, will you receive the inheritance God promised Abraham? Galatians 3:26-29.
So you see that Abraham was given the covenant of faith; the same covenant of faith we have, that God would be our shield, and our exceeding great reward (Genesis 15:1) – which as you read in Lesson 2–2 was the promise of receiving the spirit of Christ. God living in us is our exceeding great reward – and the key promise of the New Covenant.
WAS THE SPIRIT GIVEN IN THE OT?
But if Abraham had access to “Christ in us”, it would require that Jesus’ spirit was available in the OT. Yet in John 7:39, John tells us that “the holy spirit was not yet given”, because Jesus wasn’t glorified yet. Thus, it seems logical that if it wasn’t given yet, Abraham couldn’t have had it!
This confuses a lot of people, because it seems like there was no holy spirit in the OT, or in Jesus’ lifetime; and yet the Bible refers to the holy spirit already being “given” dozens of times in the OT and in the gospels as well.
But did these men have the spirit of Christ? Was His spirit first given at Pentecost in A.D. 31, or was it just as active in the OT? Remember the rules of Bible study; read what it says; read the context; merge and harmonize; and I’ll give you a new rule now, always challenge your assumptions!
How did the prophets in the OT receive their inspiration? 2 Peter 1:21. Did Joseph have the spirit of God IN HIM? Genesis 41:38. Were the workers in the tabernacle given the spirit of God? Exodus 31:3. Did everyone in Israel have the spirit of God? Numbers 11:29.
Clearly, not everyone in Israel had it – only certain ones, and not many of them. How does God determine who receives His spirit? Acts 5:32. How did Balaam prophesy? Numbers 24:2. Did Joshua have the spirit in him? Numbers 27:18. Did the spirit of God inspire the various judges in Israel? Judges 3:10, 6:34, 11:29, etc.
Did God give Israel His good spirit? Nehemiah 9:20. Was His spirit INSIDE of the prophets? Nehemiah 9:30. Was God annoyed that Israel didn’t cover their sins with His spirit? Isaiah 30:1. Did Daniel have the spirit of God in him? Daniel 5:11.
Did David fear God would take His holy spirit from him after he had sinned? Psalms 51:11. Doesn’t this mean David must have HAD the spirit, to fear losing it? Did David know the joys of God’s salvation? Psalms 51:12. Was the spirit free then, just as it is now? (Same verse, compare to Luke 11:13).
Was His spirit everywhere, then as now? Psalms 139:7-12 (and Psalms 139:1-6 are worth reading too). Did Israel rebel against, and vex, God’s holy spirit? Isaiah 63:10-11. Was the spirit of God trying to work with man even before the flood? Genesis 6:3.
Now ask yourself this: If the holy spirit “was not yet given”… then how did ALL these people have access to it? How could Daniel and Joseph and others have it, David fear to lose it, prophets speak by it, Israel reject and vex it, IF IT WASN’T YET GIVEN?
What spirit inspired the OT prophets? 1 Peter 1:10-12. Peter clearly told us the spirit of Christ was in those prophets! And those prophets prophesied of grace! So obviously, the spirit of Christ WAS given in the OT – so what did John mean when he wrote “for the spirit was not yet given”?
Clearly there is a contradiction here. We have literally hundreds of verses that speak of the holy spirit being actively involved in the salvation of the righteous men in the Old Testament – and remember the rule, many clear verses must be used to interpret one or two unclear verses.
So what are we missing? What are we assuming that is preventing us from seeing the answer? We’re assuming that “not YET given” means it had NEVER been given before! In other words, what if it HAD been given to Abraham, and had at some point been taken away and Jesus was giving it back!
NOT YET GIVEN
The holy spirit is often mentioned in Jesus’ lifetime, even though supposedly “it was not yet given”. This also seems like a contradiction, for if it “was not given”, how is that Peter understood what he did? Matthew 16:17. So the spirit WAS given – yet it wasn’t. How can these both be true?
Once again, challenge your assumptions. In this case, the inherent assumption is that there is only ONE holy spirit. But you’ve already learned that Jesus and the Father are distinct beings, with distinct spiritual bodies. That means each of the Elohim has two ears, two legs, one nose, and each of them has one unique spirit!
Read that last verse again; was this the spirit of Christ that revealed things to Peter?
No, it was the FATHER’S spirit! It was Jesus’ spirit who EXPLAINED that to Peter! Remember what a spirit is – God’s ultrawave telephone to your mind. The world assumes that they each share a phone, but why? Why shouldn’t each of the Elohim have their own private line to the saints?
Almost every Christian is certain there is only ONE holy spirit, used by both the Father and Jesus. I believed this myself for a long time. But read Romans 8:9-11. Remember the first rule of Bible study: “What does it actually say?”
First he says in verse 10, “if [the spirit of] Christ be in you…”, then draws an immediate contrast to what happens if you have a DIFFERENT holy spirit in you! “But IF the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you…”! – WHO raised Jesus from the dead? Romans 6:4.
So you see a direct contrast: “if ONE spirit is in you, then…”, “but if the OTHER spirit is in you, then…”. Do you see the distinction? I realize this is not something you’ve ever heard before, but that is exactly what it says. “If Jesus’ spirit is in you… but if the FATHER’S spirit is also in you…”!
The fact that the spirits of both Elohim are mentioned together, contrasted against each other, conclusively proves they are unique! And why shouldn’t they be unique – aren’t your spirit and mine unique? Did Jesus have the spirit of God? Matthew 3:16. Was He FULL of the holy spirit? Luke 4:1. How did Jesus cast out devils? Matthew 12:28. Yet if you’ll notice, these are all references to the spirit of the Father.
Throughout Jesus’ lifetime, there is not a single reference to the spirit of Christ doing ANYTHING. No miracle was wrought by the spirit of Christ. No understanding was revealed by it. Every time the “spirit of God” was mentioned in the gospels, it referred of the spirit of the Father.
Remember back in John 14:17, when Jesus promised His spirit would be in them; According to Jesus’ own words, Peter and the disciples already HAD the spirit of the Father working in them; so this must be speaking of the separate and unique spirit of Christ!
Remember, He was fully human, just like you or me. He couldn’t give us His spirit while He was alive, any more than I can give you my spirit. All Jesus was saying is they knew Him; He lived with them; and He was going to live IN them once His spirit was no longer needed to power His own physical, human body!
The man Jesus and the spirit of Jesus were the same Being in two different forms – human and spirit! He was with them as a man, but He was coming back to them as a holy spirit! He couldn’t be WITH them as a man and IN them as a spirit at the same time! That’s why, for our own good, Jesus had to DIE so that He could become a holy spirit and live in us! (John 16:7)
JOBS OF THE GODHEAD
So there are two holy spirits, each one an inseparable part of each Elohim. And each of the Gods interact with Christians in unique ways. There is very little overlap between what the Father does and what Jesus does, they each play separate and pivotal roles in your salvation. Jesus reveals this very clearly in John 6:44-45.
Notice the clear distinction between their respective jobs; NO ONE can come to Christ unless the FATHER draws them TO Christ! (John 10:27-29). And how does that happen? (Psalms 53:2). So it is the Father that finds potential Christians, and tests them; then IF they hear, and LEARN from the Father FIRST – THEN the Father introduces them to Jesus! (John 6:65).
Then once the Father works with them, handles their initial calling and understanding, He hands them off to Jesus (Galatians 4:6). Then it is Jesus who must prepare us to meet the Father – in person this time! (John 14:6-7).
Now since no one has seen the Father, HOW does the Father interact with them to DRAW THEM to believe that Jesus is the Christ? Matthew 10:20, Matthew 16:15-17. So the Father reveals them by His spirit.
Many suppose the Father has no direct part in calling you, or working with you, and that is simply not what the scripture teaches. Do we pray to Jesus, or to the Father? John 16:23. Does He also manage the sealing – and revelation – of understanding? Luke 10:21.
So you see that the Father is intimately involved in our salvation. He loves us Himself, not just because Jesus does (John 16:27-28). That’s why HE, and not Jesus, is the One to whom we pray in the NT! In the OT, when you prayed to “God”, that meant Jesus, God of the OT. But now Jesus said we can have DIRECT contact with the Father, and there is no longer a reason to pray to Him! (Matthew 6:9).
But Jesus also has an active part in our salvation – it’s a team effort! Whose spirit is required to be considered a member of God’s church? Romans 8:9. To whose spirit do we owe salvation? Philippians 1:19. Who must be IN us, to have the “hope of glory”? Colossians 1:27. Which spirit was IN the prophets, even in the Old Testament? 1 Peter 1:10-11. Does Jesus have His own spirit – one that was SEPARATE from the Father’s spirit? Luke 23:46.
ONE SPIRIT
There was a time when I didn’t understand this, so I know exactly how hard this is to grasp; but ask yourself, is it your job to twist God’s words to fit what you’ve always believed… or is it your job to make what you believe fit what God clearly says? Remember, we must harmonize, not make the scriptures compete with each other!
One reasonable objection starts with this verse: 1 Corinthians 12:13. What exactly does that say? That there is only one spirit in the universe? (Which we know isn’t true!) Or does it merely say we are:
1. Baptized into one spirit (the spirit of Christ, Romans 6:3 tells us) and
2. Drink of one spirit (also the spirit of Christ, 1 Corinthians 10:4).
That’s all it says – and everyone in the church has that same one spirit – the spirit of Christ! (Romans 8:9).
But they also have ANOTHER spirit, the spirit of the Father! (Romans 8:-11).
The other objection is Ephesians 4:4. The same answer applies here; we all have ONE spirit. The spirit of Christ. The same spirit. There is ONE body of Christ, and it has ONE spirit throughout (Romans 12:5).
As usual, the context answers the question; the verse before the first objection scripture, 1 Corinthians 12:12 makes it clear which “one spirit” this is that we all have – and why! The short answer is Ephesians 2:18. We all have access through ONE spirit – the spirit of Christ – to the Father and HIS Spirit!
SUMMARY AND CONCLUSION
Each of the Gods has an active part in our salvation. First, the Father chooses candidates to call. Then He shows them some truth through His spirit, and if they like it He leads them to Christ who shows them more through His own. Which, in turn, teaches them more about the Father!
This means that in the Old Testament, Jesus’ spirit was in David; it was in Abraham; it was in the prophets who spoke for God; it was in Moses and Joshua and the judges; and it was offered to all of Israel but they rejected it (Isaiah 30:1, Isaiah 63:10-11 – more on that in the next lesson). And THAT’S why God said the gospel was preached to them just as it was preached to us!
But when Jesus was born, it was necessary for Him to give up His existence as a God and become fully human; so the Father placed the spirit of Jesus in an egg in the womb of Mary, and for the next 35 years or so Jesus’ spirit was not available to mankind – Jesus was on Earth in person, and His spirit was no different from yours or mine… except that it managed to resist the temptation to sin.
The Father’s spirit continued to be available, and it is what did the miracles. But at the time of the events in John 7:39, Jesus’ spirit “had not yet been given” to mankind AGAIN. That’s why the apostles were told they would “be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence” (Acts 1:5), about 10 days before Pentecost. It’s why Peter was not yet converted (Luke 22:32), because it is impossible to be converted without the spirit of Christ (1 Corinthians 2:9-16).
As always, this answer is simple, clean, and easy to understand. And as always, the only possible conclusion if you read ALL the scriptures on the subject. And, as always, it is summed up in a scripture you already knew, but never truly read for what it says – Luke 10:21-22.
It is the Father’s spirit who reveals things to the foolish and ignorant of the world (1 Corinthians 1:27- 29). And they are given to Jesus, for no one can know who the Son is unless the Father tells them (Matthew 16:17). Jesus’ spirit then teaches them about the Father, for no one can know who the Father is unless the Son tells them!
John 10:28-30 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand. I and my Father are one [God-Family!].
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